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Do I misunderstand something or would the remedy for an imperforate hymen be one that caused an imperforate hymen during proving? In that case I doubt if it is recorded, even if such a remedy should exist
.Hans
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<i>You have a right to your own opinion, but not to your own facts.</i> |
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Moalij: No that was not me, I always post as MRC_Hans. However, the question is quite valid, so I'll stick my head out and, at the risk of again being labelled a troll, ask: Since homeopaths claim to be able to cure a wide range of diseases (some say all), we have to assume that all of those diseases were recorded as caused by the remedies in healthy persons during provings? I can read the MM myself, but some of the symtoms fill me with puzzlement: Did the remedies REALLY cause that in test subjects?
Hans
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<i>You have a right to your own opinion, but not to your own facts.</i> Last edited by LisaAnnan : 8th September 2004 at 09:28 AM. |
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Hans, during a proving, it's the experience of the disease rather than the actual disease that is produced. Lets take a remedy that produces a runny nose and fever and a few days later a blotchy rash that starts on the face. When we have a kid with measles, we might think of this remedy as a possible prescription. It doesn't mean that measles were produced during the proving. Often times when repertories have remedies listed under measles, it is a clinical SX, i.e., in clinical practice, the remedy has been found to be effective when someone has measles. In this case, the rubrics which would comprise the symptoms of measles were not necessarily produced during a proving. As for a hernia, the proving may have produced the same sensation that someone with a hernia would experience, but, as far as I know, none of the provings have ever produced actual pathological tissue changes.
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Shirley Reischman |
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.Hans
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<i>You have a right to your own opinion, but not to your own facts.</i> |
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Homeopath |
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