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Old 25th October 2003, 02:16 PM
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Would a homeopathic preparation of a recreational drug work? What are the effects of such a preparation of cocaine or LSD or THC or even alcohol? One should be able to get high for very cheap, right? Since the amounts of the drug in the preparation would be virtually unobservable, there would be no legal problems. It seems to me that $20 worth of speed would be enough to get the eastern seaboard of the USA very, very high.

Why is this not being done? Given the profit motive, this is pretty telling.
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Old 25th October 2003, 03:40 PM
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No.

These drugs are already homeopathic medicines, but you're talking about chemical effects, whereas these are subAvogadrean medicines with ultramolecular effects that Hahnemann called dynamis, meaning "powers."

This question seems rather suspicious to me.

Do you know what ultramolecular means or what is special about our drugs?
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Old 25th October 2003, 04:51 PM
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Hang on. You are saying that recreational drugs are homeopathic already? How do you figure that? These drugs have a direct effect on the state of ones being, what makes them different from anything else? It seems that homeopathy uses everything from elements to long chain molecules. Why should these be different?
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Old 25th October 2003, 06:03 PM
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There's nothing in them.

How's that for an obviously unexpected answer?

And, no, the recreational drugs have already entered the homeopathic materia medica ("materials of medicine") and pharmacopia because they were potentized and then tested on the healthy (proved).

[ 25. October 2003, 19:05: Message edited by: Hahnemannian444 ]
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Old 25th October 2003, 10:01 PM
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This is excellent. I see a business opportunity.

Are you saying that these preparations have the same effect as the "street" versions? They must, right?
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Old 25th October 2003, 10:25 PM
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Smile

You're really just having fun with me, right?

Funny man!

[ 26. October 2003, 00:17: Message edited by: Hahnemannian444 ]
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Old 26th October 2003, 04:09 AM
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Quote:
Seb; Are you saying that these preparations have the same effect as the "street" versions? They must, right?

Bema; Bear in mind that the symptoms elicited in the healthy provers are those that can be addressed in sick people by these substances prepared homeopathically
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
How we will ,then, relate the symptoms elicited by 'street' versions' in healthy persons with those addressed in sick people by these substances prepared homeopathically?

[ 26. October 2003, 04:12: Message edited by: kayveeh ]
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Old 26th October 2003, 12:24 PM
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Sebastian - I admire your entrepreneurial bent but must nevertheless tell you that your optimistic assumption just ain't so.

You can read homeopathic provings of heroin and LSD at http://www.hominf.org/proving.htm

Bear in mind that the symptoms elicited in the healthy provers are those that can be addressed in sick people by these substances prepared homeopathically.
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Old 26th October 2003, 07:06 PM
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I'm sorry, but you people are evading Sebastian's question. According to Hahnemann, the effects of any substance is enhanced by potentialization. Thus, the symptoms of, say, heroin, should also be evident in a high-potency preparation.

If not, how do you explain that exception to Hahnemann's natural laws?

Hans

[ 26. October 2003, 19:06: Message edited by: MRC_Hans ]
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Old 26th October 2003, 11:38 PM
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MRC_Hans said:

Quote:
According to Hahnemann, the effects of any substance is enhanced by potentialization. Thus, the symptoms of, say, heroin, should also be evident in a high-potency preparation.

If not, how do you explain that exception to Hahnemann's natural laws?
Yeah, but at least two points need to be addressed with that erroneous or simplistic understanding of the Law of Similars:

1. Drugs have primary and secondary effects, the former being the poisoning ones (which he wants or suggests he wants, albeit that the question rings of cunning, deceit and subterfuge en rapport with the Lower Astral Plane) and the latter being the CURATIVE ones and those of the organism AFTER the drug effects have run their coarse; and

2. We primarily test and apply subAvogadrean, ultramolecular drugs, not chemical drugs, which is what the questioner assumed.

If we presume the question was serious, which I doubt, this demonstrates the degree to which people are allopathically brainwashed.

For such people, drug = chemical drug, and medicinal action = chemical reaction, but homeopathic provings and cures with ultramolecular drugs proves this is an erroneous assumption.

----------

The symptoms of heroin are there, but the fact remains that these are not chemical drugs.

How do you explain that, Hans?

Let me see allopathic notions from abject materialism explain realities about health, disease, therapeutics, the nature of existence and the nature of the universe revealed by homeopathy.

[ 26. October 2003, 23:51: Message edited by: Hahnemannian444 ]
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