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Old 3rd October 2004, 06:30 PM
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LisaAnnan LisaAnnan is offline
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Here I want to ask Lisa: Where and when did Boger say that he relates to chronic remedy in his works automatically whenever he writes of ‘’constitutional simillimum’’?
I have no idea if Boger wrote this anywhere in his works.

Please read my post again -- I said maybe he meant chronic-remedy when he writes 'constitutional simillimum', because of what the rest of the quote said...which led me to believe he did indeed use a series of remedies to treat chronic diseases.

Quote:
or maybe, it was the fashion of the time to stay within the Swedenborgian terminology, just to show to be up- to- date but otherwise follow sound homeopathic principles.
Maybe it was. I've wondered about this, myself.

Time is very limited for me at the moment - so I'll have to read and ponder it again later when I have more time. Sounds like a potentially, very good discussion, though!
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Last edited by LisaAnnan; 3rd October 2004 at 06:44 PM.
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