Snoopy -

Over the past several months I've been visiting this BB, you have consistently presented an articulate and compelling case for low potency prescribing. If I can ask some clarification, and even discussion from others, I am very curious to know:

1. In your normal practice, and starting with an LM1, or a C6, how high might you "normally" reach in terms of potencies -- I don't mean every time, but, say, in some regularly recurring percentage of cases (50% or 2% or whatever) , do you reach 200C or 1M? If so, what drives you to these dilutions?

2. If, hypothetically, you knew with certainty that a particular remedy was THE similimum, and that the patient would not have any significant aggravation to it regardless whether you started at 6C, LM1, or 50M, is there any advantage to starting at the 50M? Another way to phrase the question: do the higher potencies have advantages over the lower potencies -- again, practicalities of aggravations etc put to one side, for purposes of discussion.

Apologies if the questions are naive.

JSB

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"The need to perform adjustments for covariates...weakens the findings." BMJ Clinical Evidence: Mental Health, (No. 11), p. 95.... It's that simple, guys: bad numbers make bad science.