this may be a beginner's question, especially as i've posed it a couple of times and no one picked up on it ... so maybe if i try a thread about it...?

anyway, research demonstrates a causal relationship between maternal smoking and the later development of symptoms that are allopathically characterized as "ADHD." arguably, the child in this situation has "suffered from" ADHD symptoms from the moment of conception...such, at least, would be the starting point of my argument, or question: if the individual has always had 'behaviors' (or "pre-behaviors" in the form of physiological reactions specific to tobacco), then there has never been a change from a prior state of well-being, so there can be no "disease," or no disordering of the life force.

except that situation is similar to the situation with miasmatic diseases. i know that people treat "ADHD" homeopathically (well, the whole person, including those symptoms traditionally grouped as the diagnostic entity) ... but how is this conceptualized, since there is no "onset?"

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"The need to perform adjustments for covariates...weakens the findings." BMJ Clinical Evidence: Mental Health, (No. 11), p. 95.... It's that simple, guys: bad numbers make bad science.